Originally posted by Shi Huangdi
I think you can get past alot of the blah blah blah and boil it down to a specific, simple, question: Does consent to have sex imply consent to care for a child?
If it does, then the government has the right to stop the woman from getting an abortion. If it does not, then the government doesn't have the right to make the man pay child support.
I think you can get past alot of the blah blah blah and boil it down to a specific, simple, question: Does consent to have sex imply consent to care for a child?
If it does, then the government has the right to stop the woman from getting an abortion. If it does not, then the government doesn't have the right to make the man pay child support.
Sex does not equal pregnancy. Pregancy will only occur if BOTH PARTIES fail to take the necessary steps to stop a pregancy. Obviously the woman has more tools to prevent pregancy, but a man has toold also.
If both parties failed to take the necessary steps, then BOTH must bear the responsibility for their communal failure.
Because of the nature of reproduction in human beings, the man's involvement in pregancy is over in seconds. The woman's takes months. Therefore, she will obviously have more choices, as is only logical, given that she bears the child, HE does NOT.
The notion of child support exist exactly because men were getting away with NEVER bearing any cost for their failure of responsiblity. There is no connection between the two issues. The end of abortion does not end the "inequality", since a woman could always put the kid for adoption, therefore also ending the possible cost to the man.
Therefore, that initial logical is, well WRONG.
Comment