Originally posted by lord of the mark
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Summary- you asserted that slavery or the presence of black servants or workers was rare or uncommon in Europe in the 18th Century.
You backed this up with no evidence whatsoever, and then had the cheek to ask me for MY sources.
Now, I call that chutzpah.
I have studied 17th and 18th Century English and British and European history, you know....
Summary: you say you mention Judge Sewall 'not really' in connection with abolitionism, and yet draw my attention by placing him in conjunction and comparison with Great Britain's most famous abolitionist, who unfortunately couldn't quite persuade his parents to give birth to him before Judge Sewall was born.
My, how very remiss of him.
I mention the obvious sources that any social historian would go to for the visual and written evidence of the African population of Western Europe, and you bring in a ludicrous comparison with the number of slaves present in the sugar islands or colonies in the New World, and dismiss paintings as being elitist.
How this is meant to show how common or uncommon Africans were in Western European slave trading states, I have no idea.
what exactly is the issue?
I'm not sure- perhaps you just like trying to irritate me ?
My sources:
Robert Winder : Bloody Foreigners: The Story Of Immigration To Britain
G. M. Trevelyan: English Social History
Christopher Lee: This Sceptred Isle 55 b.c.- 1901 a.d.
Norman Davies: The Isles
Stephen Bourne: Speak Of Me As I Am- The Black Presence In Southwark Since 1600
Black Heritage Today: Black History Month Guide
Ed. Christopher Haigh: The Cambridge Historical Encyclopaedia Of Great Britain And Ireland
Jeremy Black: An Illustrated History Of 18th Century Britain
Peter Ackroyd: London- The Biography
Good enough ?
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