I've started reading an article from the NLR entitled "A Republican Proletariat" on the phenomenon of blue collar support for Bush in the 2004 election (echoes of blue collar Reaganism). The author agonizes over why workers would vote so blatantly against their interests as workers... and seems to propose that they have been mystified by Republican moralist rhetoric.
It's an interesting phenomena that the USA never had a really strong socialist/communist movement (excepting Debs' modest successes), compared to Europe and elsewhere. This is probably most exemplified by what Americans call socialism; universal healthcare etc...
I had to do an essay on American exceptionalism last year (Seymour Martin Lipset?), and I came across a theory as to why America never went socialist. Because the USA adopted a functioning liberal democracy before industrialization, liberalism was already an entrenched ideology, in which the working classes already had a language of rights and freedoms with which they could articulate their demands for better pay/conditions.
Europe's industrialization however, still overlapped the (decline) of feudal class relations, and thus these sharp distinctions were mapped onto the new economic system, creating a radical ideology of class struggle and revolution.
What do you guys think? Are American workers brainwashed and bamboozled by moralism, too blind to articulate their own economic interests?
It's an interesting phenomena that the USA never had a really strong socialist/communist movement (excepting Debs' modest successes), compared to Europe and elsewhere. This is probably most exemplified by what Americans call socialism; universal healthcare etc...
I had to do an essay on American exceptionalism last year (Seymour Martin Lipset?), and I came across a theory as to why America never went socialist. Because the USA adopted a functioning liberal democracy before industrialization, liberalism was already an entrenched ideology, in which the working classes already had a language of rights and freedoms with which they could articulate their demands for better pay/conditions.
Europe's industrialization however, still overlapped the (decline) of feudal class relations, and thus these sharp distinctions were mapped onto the new economic system, creating a radical ideology of class struggle and revolution.
What do you guys think? Are American workers brainwashed and bamboozled by moralism, too blind to articulate their own economic interests?
Comment