Originally posted by ranskaldan
E.g., If A is talking to B, and A wishes to express the thought to B, A must then bend the thought to fit the language, changing it into a stream of code. B takes the code and interprets it, trying to reconstruct the thought. BUT B can never get the thought exactly right; language can never express all the nuances of thought.
E.g., If A is talking to B, and A wishes to express the thought to B, A must then bend the thought to fit the language, changing it into a stream of code. B takes the code and interprets it, trying to reconstruct the thought. BUT B can never get the thought exactly right; language can never express all the nuances of thought.
This assumes that thought exists prior to and thus independent of language. It isn't clear that it does or that there is a separate "language of thought". There isn't immediate evidence for either claim, so they must be argued for.
And it also isn't clear that the process that produces linguistic utterances is necessary a process that involves the manipulation of information, rather than a mere physical process (although it could of course be both).
Language is a public phenomenon, with public checks and balances. A "private" language is not possible because other people could not understand it and because it could provide no criteria of correct use of expression. Since language is essentially normative (i.e. rule governed) it follows that it can't be private.
Moreover, the meaning of every single utterance we make is based on our acceptance of countless beliefs - in other words meaning is holistically distributed throughout our belief structure rather than parcelled out sentence by sentence. So the notion that there are discrete and independent thought contents to which we assign linguistic expressions, seems to me hard to justify.
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