GP - I don't speak/read that language.
To the legible part of your question, no.
Mad Bomber -
I was unaware I offered a model, just common sense.
And the nature of this coercion/force? If it's selling a product for less, that isn't coercion or force.
And lower prices are to be condemned?
At which point consumers get angry and competitors re-emerge.
To boycott the monopolist, produce themselves, go without the product, or seek the service/product from competitors.
See above.
Then why didn't this happen in the US prior to the anti-trust laws? You guys can talk theory all you want, I'll look at history. There is something wrong with what you guys are telling me, if it was true, there would have been nothing but "perpetual" monopolies throughout the US for it's first 120 years or so.

Mad Bomber -
Your model of a functional monopoly is flawed.
Since a monopoly by definition coerces or forces competitors out of business.
The problem is not that there are no people wishing to enter the market, the problem is that monoplies uses scales of economy to drive out competitition usually by driving prices down to the point where only the monopoly can continue in the market.
Once competition has been suppressed or eliminated, the prices are jacked up through the roof.
When this happens, what are the choices for the customer?
The only choice is to buy from the monopoly or to not buy from the monoploly.
If this were to take place across the entire economy you would end up with a communist system.
Comment