As I have said before, I believe the amendment's purpose is to protect the right of the states to form Militias.
Besides, why would it possibly defend the right of US states to form militias, when they hadn't done so until nearly a century after that Amendment was drafted with the creation of the National Guards?
I would be interested in reading the case cited by Dr. Strangelove, as it seems to equate "State" in the amendment to the "United States" and not to the "States." This is a fundamental point and quite at odds with the history of the Second Amendment cited by the Ninth Circuit.
Comment