Yes, assuming that the woman has two children and that at least one is a boy, the odds of her having two boys is 1/3.
Glad this one met less resistance!
Glad this one met less resistance!
Actually, when you add the qualifier of "one of them is a boy" - as the original question did - that would give the same result, because it would cancel number three and merge one and four, leaving a chance of 1 in 2 - either a boy and a girl, or two boys.
but then again, that would also be true if you knew the second born was a boy.... because it's then a 50/50 quetstion of the first born
: Actually, that should also apply to the first posibility before any qualifiers are added on, so there would be a 1/4 chance of having two boys, and the qualifier reduces it to 1/3 by knocking out the girl/girl possibility. So it does mean something.



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