2) if you give in to a demand, even a trivial one, do you not set a poor precedent? If, via negotiation, both sides give something up, it is (IMO) a very different thing than one side just giving in.
"Poor precedent"-so you should waste huge recources simply for "precedent"? Sorry, but that is a waste, since "precedent" lasts only as long as the toher guys decides it lasts.
The problem here is the notion Spain just gave in-the fact is the PSOE had stated before the elections they would pull out, and if anything, tempered their response prior to the election. The events of last week made many Spaniards rethink their coutnries policy in Iraq. I still find it absurd to think that the voters of Spain had to decide who would govern them for the next 4 years based solely on whether it would set a precedent for a third party, specially given the questions they now had about the abiltiies and trusrtworthiness of their government.
Let me add for the record, I do not see this as "appeasement" of AQ by Spain under any circusmatnces, under the standard biased defintion or mine. Voters made a choice of their won government based on the events of the last few days and months. That is not appeasement. After all, the new Spanish government said they would remain in Iraq if a UN mandate was given. That is not appeasing AQ. The issue is one of the legitimacy of the occupation. If the Bush admin decides to set up a Un mandate in June, which is after all when the transition of power occurs, then Spain remains in Iraq, which is hardly what AQ wants.
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