Originally posted by Sirotnikov
It has only become reproductively unsuccessful in the 20th century, no?
However, an urge that is reproductively unsuccessful more often than not would tend to disappear.
It has only become reproductively unsuccessful in the 20th century, no?
I'm arguing it's always been reproductively unsuccessful. There are only a few days a month a woman can conceive, so it often takes a sustained effort to get her pregnant (although this could be an argument for serial rapists, but how many of those do you think there were in small bands of humans).
Before the agricultural revolution, there were no flocks (animal husbandry is agriculture), hence no wealth to be traded. As far as we can tell, there is no evidence of humans as property before the agricultural revolution.
Not true. You are tying agricultural revolution to animals and it's not true.
Vagabonds and wanderers have always kept stocks and flocks. Take for example the bushmans in north africa and the beduins in Israel.
Agricutlure refers to both plant and animal farming. Animal husbandry begins at nearly the same time as the agricutural revolution. You can't tame animals until you have something to tame them with, i.e., extra food.
While the two lifestyles are not mutually exclusive, people living on marginal land had to be nomadic since the animals would eat up all their food. Plus, Bushman and Beduin didn't exist 25,000 years ago.
Also consider that the children of rape were likely to be exposed or killed with the mother.
Not always.
A child is another hunter. A mother wouldn't always complain. Heck, even now most women don't complain.
In the age of women as property, men were unwilling to spend resources and energy raising another man's child. Another hunter is also another mouth to feed and a competitor with your children for your property. The whole point of making women into property was to control reproduction. If you arent going to control it, then you have no reason for marriage or harems.
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