Originally posted by Urban Ranger
It depends on how you define "biology" and "science."
It depends on how you define "biology" and "science."
How about "the systematic study of living organisms and their causes" and "the systematic study of the natures of things and their causes".
Broad enough?
That's what Aristotle was doing.
Next question.
So Spontaneous Generation seemed reasonable to you?
The point is that when you don't have experimental apparatus, you are thrown back onto rational speculation. When you have a lot of experimental data and get good practical results out of it, attempting to unify the whole of science into a rationally coherent whole gets put on the back burner.
Wouldn't you classify Aristotle to be an empiricist, given the way you asserted him giving primacy to observations?
Later empiricists like Hume think that causal relations and potencies (like inflammability) are the result of the operation of human nature on direct experiences. For Hume experiences do not reveal real causes in the natures of things, they are data on which we naturally impose causal hypotheses.
Aristotle's theory of perception and thinking (in De Anima) is quite different from Hume's, so calling them both empiricists is misleading.
Given that the Greek "theory" of the four elements is inherently flawed, he didn't have much of a leg.
Furthermore, Aristotle isn't really well known for gathering experimental evidence of anything at all.
On the other hand, the lack of instruments also meant not a whole lot of observations can be make, simplifying his work.
Gee, did I sense idol worshipping here?
Again, as I said, depends on how you define "science" and other things.
It's just a lazy prejudice to regard ancient people as somehow "daft".
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