OK, just done a test of 100 knights v 100 pikemen. Knights won 33 times.
The combat odds calculator showed 27.0%, so p=0.27
Mean is clearly 27, variance np(1-p)=100*0.27*0.73=19.71, so standard deviation is sqroot(19.72)=4.44.
so my test was (33-27)/4.44=1.35 s.d.s from the mean.
Approximating to the normal as in my previous test and looking this up, we have 0.4115, so that's a 9% chance of this skewed a result or more.
That's not statistically significant (for a 2-tailed 5% test, it'd need to be 2.5% or less, 1-tailed and it would be 5%).
This means we have no evidence from this test to reject the null hypothesis that p=0.27, i.e. no bias from what is given by the combat odds display.
I think that's it for me in this ballgame - the cumulative evidence seems clear that there's no bias in the combat system.
The combat odds calculator showed 27.0%, so p=0.27
Mean is clearly 27, variance np(1-p)=100*0.27*0.73=19.71, so standard deviation is sqroot(19.72)=4.44.
so my test was (33-27)/4.44=1.35 s.d.s from the mean.
Approximating to the normal as in my previous test and looking this up, we have 0.4115, so that's a 9% chance of this skewed a result or more.
That's not statistically significant (for a 2-tailed 5% test, it'd need to be 2.5% or less, 1-tailed and it would be 5%).
This means we have no evidence from this test to reject the null hypothesis that p=0.27, i.e. no bias from what is given by the combat odds display.
I think that's it for me in this ballgame - the cumulative evidence seems clear that there's no bias in the combat system.
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