Originally posted by Jon Miller
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Are the rich paying their 'fair' share?
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Originally posted by Jon Miller View PostBut how do you account for all the goods that wealth provides but which are not purchasable in a shop?
JM
(And in many cases you can acquire these goods without even spending your wealth.)
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Originally posted by Dauphin View PostSomething to consider... If, in a world with no dividend or CG taxes, shares in company X paid a dividend of $5/share in perpetuity were valued at $100. What would be the effect on the share value if all dividends and CG were charged at 20% tax. What would be the effect on return on investment?
Mostly interested in seeing thought processes....
If you did this economy-wide, the equilibrium for business investment would shift, and you'd end up with a society that spends somewhat less of its GDP on investments, and somewhat more of its GDP on personal consumption."You're the biggest user of hindsight that I've ever known. Your favorite team, in any sport, is the one that just won. If you were a woman, you'd likely be a slut." - Slowwhand, to Imran
Eschewing silly games since December 4, 2005
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Originally posted by Oncle Boris View PostSomeone still has to explain me why value resulting from labor*capital-wage should be considered different than value from labor*capital-profit.
The reason that wage and profit should be taxed differently is that the profit comes from the capital, which was initially formed by labor. It's not actually "labor*capital", but "labor*(labor*capital)", or even "labor*(labor*(labor*..." like a set Russian dolls.
Imagine that someone builds a shovel, which is used to dig a mine, which is used to get iron and coal, which is used to make steel, which is used to create construction machinery, which is used to make a drydock, which is used to make ships, which are sold to a foreign country. Applying taxes on the capital income side each step of the process ends up diminishing the value of the shovel-creator's labor most by hitting him with a long series of telescoping taxes, just because he happened to contribute very early on in the process - while the value of the shipmaker's labor is diminished the least through taxation.
Brought back to regular econ terms for non-Marxists: each time capital gains are realized and taxed, the present-discounted purchasing power of wage income earned several periods ago declines relative to the present-discounted purchasing power of wage income earned more recently."You're the biggest user of hindsight that I've ever known. Your favorite team, in any sport, is the one that just won. If you were a woman, you'd likely be a slut." - Slowwhand, to Imran
Eschewing silly games since December 4, 2005
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Originally posted by Aeson View PostThe distinction breaks down in some cases anyways.
Self employed day trader who makes their income solely from capital gains vs employed trader who makes their income from a paycheck/performance bonuses. In both cases they are (or at least could be) doing the same type and amount of work for the same compensation. But the fruits of their labor would be taxed differently. (Not just in regards to capital gains/self employment/income taxes either. Taxes on the corporation would indirectly affect the employed trader's compensation.)
Better to just move to consumption taxes all around.
Consumption taxes can be made progressive through sales tax plus a simple swipeable card, like the food stamps ones, that exempts you from tax fully on your first $X purchases during the year, and then partially on your next $Y in purchases, and so forth. We swipeable cards for food stamps already, so it would be very easy to use them for progressive sales tax refunds."You're the biggest user of hindsight that I've ever known. Your favorite team, in any sport, is the one that just won. If you were a woman, you'd likely be a slut." - Slowwhand, to Imran
Eschewing silly games since December 4, 2005
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Originally posted by Jon Miller View PostBut how do you account for all the goods that wealth provides but which are not purchasable in a shop?
JM
(And in many cases you can acquire these goods without even spending your wealth.)"You're the biggest user of hindsight that I've ever known. Your favorite team, in any sport, is the one that just won. If you were a woman, you'd likely be a slut." - Slowwhand, to Imran
Eschewing silly games since December 4, 2005
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Originally posted by Jaguar View PostGood phrasing of the same question in Marxian terms. The "*" operator ends up being a little bit sketchy, but it actually works OK for the simple sort of analysis you want. You're operating from an equation where labor*capital=wage+profit. The wage goes to the provider of the labor, and the profit goes to the provider of the capital.
The reason that wage and profit should be taxed differently is that the profit comes from the capital, which was initially formed by labor. It's not actually "labor*capital", but "labor*(labor*capital)", or even "labor*(labor*(labor*..." like a set Russian dolls.
Imagine that someone builds a shovel, which is used to dig a mine, which is used to get iron and coal, which is used to make steel, which is used to create construction machinery, which is used to make a drydock, which is used to make ships, which are sold to a foreign country. Applying taxes on the capital income side each step of the process ends up diminishing the value of the shovel-creator's labor most by hitting him with a long series of telescoping taxes, just because he happened to contribute very early on in the process - while the value of the shipmaker's labor is diminished the least through taxation.
Brought back to regular econ terms for non-Marxists: each time capital gains are realized and taxed, the present-discounted purchasing power of wage income earned several periods ago declines relative to the present-discounted purchasing power of wage income earned more recently.
Also: it seems to me that if you're taxing the value of labor, nothing's much wrong here, no?In Soviet Russia, Fake borises YOU.
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Originally posted by gribbler View PostWhat would that be? Love?"Flutie was better than Kelly, Elway, Esiason and Cunningham." - Ben Kenobi
"I have nothing against Wilson, but he's nowhere near the same calibre of QB as Flutie. Flutie threw for 5k+ yards in the CFL." -Ben Kenobi
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Originally posted by gribbler View PostWhat do you mean by that? The "privilege" of having the biggest house and the nicest car and a private jet? Are there any privileges associated with being rich that can't be hit by a consumption tax?
I'm not saying such privilege is significant (although it can be; for example, networking) but I assume that's where Jon Miller was going with this."Flutie was better than Kelly, Elway, Esiason and Cunningham." - Ben Kenobi
"I have nothing against Wilson, but he's nowhere near the same calibre of QB as Flutie. Flutie threw for 5k+ yards in the CFL." -Ben Kenobi
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Okay, three things--the black market, bribes, and penis length compensation. Except status symbols still get taxed. So really, I think still two things.
But man, it's a real shame we can't directly tax feeling good about yourself.If there is no sound in space, how come you can hear the lasers?
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