Originally posted by Darius871
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You quoted the wikipedia entry:
In some usages, a plaintiff's action may not be technically frivolous because it has sound legal grounds, but is colloquially referred to as frivolous for its perceived value
So you are using the colloquial usage, not the legal one, and are judging its perceived value and not its legal standing? After all, the same wikipedia entry defines it more stringently in legal terms, which you did not quote:
The typical definition in United States law is very different from its colloquial or political meaning. United States courts usually define "frivolous litigation" as a legal claim or defense presented even though the party and the party's legal counsel had reason to know that the claim or defense had no merit.
The formal definition involves whether the claim or defense has merit, not its perceived value.
What was your point in quoting that excerpt if you are now going to claim it does not have anything to do with your position?
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