Originally posted by KrazyHorse
No.
No.
The only explanations I've heard before are 1) the New Deal, 2) industrial expansion necessitated by WWII arms production, 3) the destruction of Europe's economy by WWII and consequent dependence on American goods, 4) a monetary phenomenon (as mentioned above), 5) a normal and inevitable recovery cycle, and/or 6) Bretton Woods' postwar loosening of trade restrictions like Smoot-Hawtley. Which do you lean toward?
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