There is one thing about this argument I have never really understood. The percentage of Brahmins in the general population has never risen beyond three to five per cent anywhere in India. They have also never been significant landowners. Nor have they been in positions of political power for any significant length of time. Nor have they ever been economically dominant, even in the trades. They also do not have a martial tradition, unlike some other castes.
How, then, I ask, did this group manage to "oppress" the remaining 97% of the population?
How, then, I ask, did this group manage to "oppress" the remaining 97% of the population?
Assuming that all of your assertions are true, the answer to your question that makes the most sense to me is:
Knowledge. Having it, using it, hoarding it.
-Arrian
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