Originally posted by David Floyd
Already addressed by Imran. I'll just add that the Supreme Court of Marshall was much less "political" than the Supreme Court of the past 75 years or so. They took that case, ruled on the merits (correctly, I might add), and saying that "political struggle" was involved in the decision isn't true. Yes, Marshall did talk about the destruction of the bank, but that was precisely the specific legal issue at hand. What the case established, though, was a PRECEDENT. The precedent was not that "states can't tax the US Bank". While certainly true, the precedent that was set was much broader - no inferior government can restrict or constrain the federal government in the exercise of its rights or performance of it's duties.
Already addressed by Imran. I'll just add that the Supreme Court of Marshall was much less "political" than the Supreme Court of the past 75 years or so. They took that case, ruled on the merits (correctly, I might add), and saying that "political struggle" was involved in the decision isn't true. Yes, Marshall did talk about the destruction of the bank, but that was precisely the specific legal issue at hand. What the case established, though, was a PRECEDENT. The precedent was not that "states can't tax the US Bank". While certainly true, the precedent that was set was much broader - no inferior government can restrict or constrain the federal government in the exercise of its rights or performance of it's duties.
What you say IS relevant, because it's precisely the question I asked earlier. I'll restate it: Are you continuing to debate because you disagree with the outcome of McCulloch vs. Maryland? A simple yes or no will be fine, followed by as much explanation as you like.
The two are one and the same. Placing a constraint on the federal government is the same as preventing the federal government from carrying out it's lawful duties. The constraint may not be 100% - or even 1% - effective in preventing the federal government from doing it's job, but the fact remains that the constraint itself is still unconstitutional.
Well, that's fine. I'm just pointing out the logical extension of your argument. In this case, the extension is that in a HUGE number of cities, and even states, abortion could be de facto banned simply through zoning it out of existence. And the fact remains that you can't do an end-run around a Supreme Court decision in this manner - you'll get sued, and the case won't make it anywhere NEAR the Supreme Court no matter how much you appeal.
Well, it's different in that we are talking about the rights of the people on one hand, and the expressly granted power of the federal government on the other. But it's not different from the standpoint that just as you can't take an overt action specifically aimed at reducing voter turnout by even as low as 1% in your city, you also can't take an overt action specifically aimed at reducing military recruitment by even as low as 1% in your city.
I agree! Wholeheartedly! Just because Imran and I agree on this, you'll find that we are lightyears apart on the issue of the overall scope of federal power granted by the US Constitution, for example. However, when it comes to powers expressly granted to the federal government, even I agree that inferior governments can't interfere.
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