I just finished a book on the Occupation of France. Germany required Vichy to pay "the costs of occupation" = my book says the payments amounted to over 60% of "French national income". The author does not make it clear if hes using the national income accounting def of national income, in which NI is not that much smaller than GDP - in which case 60% is incredibly high. OTOH I doubt he just means 60% of the govt revenue. Or does he?
Unfortunately I dont have the numbers handy.
Anyone know more about this?
Unfortunately I dont have the numbers handy.
Anyone know more about this?
Comment