Originally posted by ElTigre
This is only true for warships passing through other nations territorial waters by mistake ("innocent passage"). The British ships however boarded a neutral vessel. If we accept the Iranian point of view (which I don't), a strong case can be made that the detaining of sailors who just boarded a neutral ship in the territorial waters of another nation is perfectly legal.
This is only true for warships passing through other nations territorial waters by mistake ("innocent passage"). The British ships however boarded a neutral vessel. If we accept the Iranian point of view (which I don't), a strong case can be made that the detaining of sailors who just boarded a neutral ship in the territorial waters of another nation is perfectly legal.
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