When I studied history in school, there was a lot of material provided on the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, in order to show the brutality of the British occupiers of India. However, not a word was said about a much bigger event, the Moplah Rebellion.
If we are to include such extensive coverage of the first, should not the second have at least a passing mention, given that the death toll in the second was almost 17 times higher, without counting the people displaced?
This is the sort of thing I mean when I talk about bias in history writing. It's basically a Marxist circlejerk.
If we are to include such extensive coverage of the first, should not the second have at least a passing mention, given that the death toll in the second was almost 17 times higher, without counting the people displaced?
This is the sort of thing I mean when I talk about bias in history writing. It's basically a Marxist circlejerk.
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