If C&P both start at 60 then I need equal numbers of shares from each (long on C, short on P). If, after 6 months they both are at 50 then I sell my C to close the short on P and I make no money. I get 50 for each C I own, but have to pay 50 for each P I owe (technically I lose the money associated with the carrying cost of the short, but let's ignore that for now). Same if they're both at 70 after 6 months.
If, however, C goes to 55 while P goes to 50, then for each share I close I get to pocket the price difference of 5$. Or, if I've ****ed up and the opposite happens then I need to pay 5$ out of pocket for each one I close. (C at 50, P at 55)
In any case, I don't care what the overall variability was. What I care about is (Cfinal/Cinitial)*(Pinitial/Pfinal) - 1
That's my return
If, however, C goes to 55 while P goes to 50, then for each share I close I get to pocket the price difference of 5$. Or, if I've ****ed up and the opposite happens then I need to pay 5$ out of pocket for each one I close. (C at 50, P at 55)
In any case, I don't care what the overall variability was. What I care about is (Cfinal/Cinitial)*(Pinitial/Pfinal) - 1
That's my return
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