Why do Italy, France and UK Have Exactly the Same Population Size?

[Adalbertus]

Originally posted by Colonâ„¢


If the Low Countries hadn't gotten separated due to the Spanish, we would have had 25 million as well.

Not quite true. If it were not for the Spanish, the Low Countries still would be part of Germany (of then 107 million).

And: The formerly Roman parts of Germany are just the southern half of Bavaria, most of Baden-Württemberg and everything to the west of the Rhine, maybe 20 million people.

[Heresson]

Originally posted by Frozzy
UK actually has around 100m people now all of Poland is living in Britain.

I am not But I am gonna visit my sis in Britain. In march, probably.

[LordShiva]

Originally posted by Heresson
I am not But I am gonna visit my sis in Britain. In march, probably.

Can I visit your sis too?

[Dr Strangelove]

Well there really would be just as many French, English and Italians as Germans, but during the 19th century many French, English and Italians moved to the Americas. Some Germans did too, but not as many. Germans are a sensitive people and did not like being called "square-heads" so they stopped coming here.

[Barnabas]

Many came to south america too, some mixed in the general population and some still live in scary all german endogamic bavarian looking towns

[Wernazuma III]

Originally posted by Dr Strangelove
Well there really would be just as many French, English and Italians as Germans, but during the 19th century many French, English and Italians moved to the Americas. Some Germans did too, but not as many. Germans are a sensitive people and did not like being called "square-heads" so they stopped coming here.

I don' think you can uphold this. I'm pretty sure more Germans emigrated to the Americas than did French or English in the 19th century.

[Thorgal]

Originally posted by Dauphin
I just double checked the Spainish census, apparently population of Spain is a little over 40 million, the rest indeed being foreigners living there as Cort Haus alluded to. (Mostly Morrocans and Ecuadorians).

If you double checked the official Spanish Census in www.ine.es you know that it says 44.1 millions for Jan 1 2005. And yes, it is true that in Spain there are many immigrants but they count for the total population number in the same way as in any other European country.

[Colonâ„¢]

Originally posted by Adalbertus


Not quite true. If it were not for the Spanish, the Low Countries still would be part of Germany (of then 107 million).

WTF are you alluding at?

[Adalbertus]

Look at your history books and at what happened too when the Netherlands finally won the 80 Years' War.

Saying that, you also might have been Austrian now. What do you prefer?

[Colonâ„¢]

Originally posted by Adalbertus
Look at your history books and at what happened too when the Netherlands finally won the 80 Years' War.

Please explain.

[Adalbertus]

??? I thougt that part of history should be known in Belgium.

Before the 80 Year's War (1579-1648) today's Netherlands and Belgium were part of the Holy Roman Empire (HRE), most of it ruled by Spanish Habsburgians (largest territory besides that was the bishopric Liège/Luik/Lüttich). The Dutch effectively fought the Spanish, and in the end, Netherlands became independent of Spain and the HRE. Belgium remained Spanish/Habsburgian and after the end of Habsburgian rule in Spain, it fell to the Austrians. Belgium finally left the circle of German territories with the napoleonic wars and after the Congress of Vienna, when it was attached to the Netherlands.

So, assuming the (later) separation of Germany and Austria, and the end of Habsburgian rule in Spain, and assuming that the 80 year's war did not happen, Netherlands and Belgium now would have been part of either Germany or Austria.

[VetLegion]

Adalbertus, can you clarify that?

[LordShiva]

Yes, please explain.

[Provost Harrison]

What was the population of the British Empire at its peak?

[Provost Harrison]

Ah, 458 million