It's called the War Between The States.
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U.S. Civil War - Did the South Have the Right to Secede?
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Life is not measured by the number of breaths you take, but by the moments that take your breath away.
"Hating America is something best left to Mobius. He is an expert Yank hater.
He also hates Texans and Australians, he does diversify." ~ Braindead
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Has nothing to do with what it's called in the South.
The South seceded, but we're going to call it what the Feds say call it? Ok then.
The whole reason they call it the Civil War is to stress what the South doesn't consider the war to be over.Life is not measured by the number of breaths you take, but by the moments that take your breath away.
"Hating America is something best left to Mobius. He is an expert Yank hater.
He also hates Texans and Australians, he does diversify." ~ Braindead
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Originally posted by MichaeltheGreat
The states which seceeded to form the Confederacy were sovereign at all times, prior to the ratification of the Constitution, while bound under the Constitution as part of the United States, and upon secession.“As a lifelong member of the Columbia Business School community, I adhere to the principles of truth, integrity, and respect. I will not lie, cheat, steal, or tolerate those who do.”
"Capitalism ho!"
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Isn't that what the Shia majority in the South is trying to do, secede?
In the US created civil war in Iraq I mean...
Dunno about having a 'right' though...
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Not if you're the US - they're not 'succeeding' at all!
"Stay the course, Stay the course, Stay the course..."
"What? We're losing!!?"
"Run Away, Run Away, Run Away..."
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Originally posted by Victor Galis
Nations are not like other groups, so no. People should not be allowed to break up nations because they don't agree on matters of policy. If individuals disagree that strongly they can leave... like I did....people like to cry a lot... - Pekka
...we just argue without evidence, secure in our own superiority. - Snotty
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Originally posted by DaShi
They weren't completely sovereign upon the ratification of the Constitution. They had given up some of that when they signed it. Later they decided that they didn't like that it had all these rules about human rights so they decided to take their ball and go home. They violated the contract while seceded. The flaw with the Constitution was that it didn't have an exit clause, but if the south was so concerned about it back then, they should have pushed for one. Otherwise, they would be facing war, which is really the only way such legal disputes are really settled between countries. That or boring negotiations, and I don't think anyone was willing to go through that.
Basically the 10th Amendment says if it is not covered the Power rests with the states. So unless you can show me a portion of the Constitution before the 10th Amendment that specifically covers secession or unless you can produce some other evedence that showed upon entering the Union the individual states explicitly agreed to not secede, the Federal Government has no power constitutionally to stop them.
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No where in the Constitution's text are States prohibited from taxing federal government installations. Does that mean that Mcculloch v. Maryland was improperly decided with respect to the 10th Amendment. Should Maryland have the right to tax a federal bank to the extent it wishes to do so?
Did the States agree to give up their right to tax certain federal installations? Or is there a part that specifically covers that in the Constitution?
Question being, are all powers fair game? Or, if not, how do we decide what powers States may have and what powers they may not? Or, is it the case that powers are things which only apply to lesser authority and not higher authority?“I give you a new commandment, that you love one another. Just as I have loved you, you also should love one another. By this everyone will know that you are my disciples, if you have love for one another.”
- John 13:34-35 (NRSV)
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Originally posted by Imran Siddiqui
No where in the Constitution's text are States prohibited from taxing federal government installations. Does that mean that Mcculloch v. Maryland was improperly decided with respect to the 10th Amendment. Should Maryland have the right to tax a federal bank to the extent it wishes to do so?
The Constitution also states that it is the supreme law of the land and any state law in conflict with it is void.
What Maryland attempted to do here was to create a state law (the tax) to impede one of Congress' enumerated powers.
Secession is different because there is no enumerated power dealing with the issue.
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Originally posted by Deity Dude
One of Congress' enumerated powers is to regulate interstate Commerce. Thats power gives it the right to create National Banks. The sole purpose of the tax , in this case, was to impede the National Bank.
The Constitution also states that it is the supreme law of the land and any state law in conflict with it is void.
What Maryland attempted to do here was to create a state law (the tax) to impede one of Congress' enumerated powers.
Secession is different because there is no enumerated power dealing with the issue.
Congress can still create a bank, but has to pay a tax on it. No where in the Constitution's explicit provisions does it say the federal government shall not be inconvienienced by the states. This was something implicitly read in by the Supreme Court. Probably necessary, but not particularly supported by the text itself. Interestingly enough people read into the document an implicit prohibition against slavery due to the giving up of soveriegnty in joining in such federation.“I give you a new commandment, that you love one another. Just as I have loved you, you also should love one another. By this everyone will know that you are my disciples, if you have love for one another.”
- John 13:34-35 (NRSV)
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