Originally posted by Berzerker
If you want equal access, why don't you argue for equal access instead of no access? And since you argued that manger scenes are coercive, why does equal access pass your test when non-believers will feel coerced (according to you) at the sight of all those religious symbols? You want to deny all access regardless of whether or not some gov't is denying equal access. You've cited the "coercion" one feels at the sight of a manger scene, and vandals/thugs who scare people away from putting up symbols, but you have not cited a law as the culprit.
If you want equal access, why don't you argue for equal access instead of no access? And since you argued that manger scenes are coercive, why does equal access pass your test when non-believers will feel coerced (according to you) at the sight of all those religious symbols? You want to deny all access regardless of whether or not some gov't is denying equal access. You've cited the "coercion" one feels at the sight of a manger scene, and vandals/thugs who scare people away from putting up symbols, but you have not cited a law as the culprit.
I understand Imran's argument that extending the ammendment to the states necessarily involves re-interpreting the "make no law" or at least the "Congress shall" part.
I can understand that there are difficulties at arriving at a conclusive, undisputed interpretation.
But at present I can't see whether he is
a) complaining about cases of discrimination against specific minorities
b) claiming that the 1st prohibits religious displays on state property
c) saying that its all ok as long as everyone gets to play the same game
d) complaining about an (as yet unproven) institutional bias brought about by the fact that the majority of the population belongs to one or another christian denomination
e) calling for specific corrective action to target this 'pro-christian' bias
Oh and one more quick question:
How did christian churches get their sacramental wine during the prohibition era?
Comment