Originally posted by gribbler
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I. Simple Model: Wage income and investment income
Your consumption, without tax, on wages (W, invested at interest rate r from time t0 to time t is this:
W*e^(r(t-t0))
Your wage income is W and your investment income is, naturally, (e^(r(t-t0)) - 1)W. This is just the total consumption with the wages subtracted.
II. Adding Wage Taxation
Now let's add a simple tax on wage income only. A tax at rate T paid at t0. Your consumption after-tax is this:
(1-T)W*e^(r(t-t0))
In this case, your wage income is (1-T)W and your investment income is (e^(r(t-t0)) - 1)W(1-T). Note that the term (1-T) has distributed to both types of income. That is because by reducing the principle, you also reduce future investment income by precisely the same amount.
III. Capital Gains Taxes
Finally, we add a capital gains tax rate, C.
Your consumption after taxes is now this:
(1-T)W*(1+(e^(r(t-t0))-1)*(1-C))
Wage income is again (1-T)W, and investment income is now (e^(r(t-t0)) - 1)W(1-T)(1-C). The investment income has been reduced by both tax rates, while the original wage income has been reduced only by the wage income tax rate.
IV. Conclusion
Calculating people's tax burdens in a serious, rigorous manner doesn't actually involve dividing one number by another. Ironically, the closer a rich person's "effective tax rate" is to 15%, the more their ability to purchase goods and services has been reduced by taxation.
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