I'm mostly interested in seeing if the stereotypically evil posters go with the stereotypically evil position on this.
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Is it possible for a husband to rape his wife?
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I voted yes, but would like to make it clear that this is only the case if he sodomizes her.
As long as he sticks to vaginal penetration, he's obviously in the clear. Otherwise, his rights would have been violated under the defense of marriage act. (Delaware vs. McClackett)12-17-10 Mohamed Bouazizi NEVER FORGET
Stadtluft Macht Frei
Killing it is the new killing it
Ultima Ratio Regum
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I served on the Grand Jury under a year ago, and learned this horrifying fact:
According to Ohio law, no, it is not possible for a husband to rape his wife.
"My nation is the world, and my religion is to do good." --Thomas Paine
"The subject of onanism is inexhaustable." --Sigmund Freud
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Originally posted by loinburger View PostI'm mostly interested in seeing if the stereotypically evil posters go with the stereotypically evil position on this.“As a lifelong member of the Columbia Business School community, I adhere to the principles of truth, integrity, and respect. I will not lie, cheat, steal, or tolerate those who do.”
"Capitalism ho!"
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Originally posted by Guynemer View PostI served on the Grand Jury under a year ago, and learned this horrifying fact:
According to Ohio law, no, it is not possible for a husband to rape his wife.
12-17-10 Mohamed Bouazizi NEVER FORGET
Stadtluft Macht Frei
Killing it is the new killing it
Ultima Ratio Regum
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Apparently, I am remembering it wrong, as KH has it exact, which is still horrifying:
(A)(1) No person shall engage in sexual conduct with another who is not the spouse of the offender or who is the spouse of the offender but is living separate and apart from the offender, when any of the following applies:
(a) For the purpose of preventing resistance, the offender substantially impairs the other person’s judgment or control by administering any drug, intoxicant, or controlled substance to the other person surreptitiously or by force, threat of force, or deception.
(b) The other person is less than thirteen years of age, whether or not the offender knows the age of the other person.
(c) The other person’s ability to resist or consent is substantially impaired because of a mental or physical condition or because of advanced age, and the offender knows or has reasonable cause to believe that the other person’s ability to resist or consent is substantially impaired because of a mental or physical condition or because of advanced age.
(2) No person shall engage in sexual conduct with another when the offender purposely compels the other person to submit by force or threat of force.
EDIT: Ahhhh, now I remember. The case where we heard about the statute did, in fact, involve the victim being drugged, so the prosecutor only quoted the relevant bit of the law.Last edited by Guynemer; June 6, 2010, 14:00."My nation is the world, and my religion is to do good." --Thomas Paine
"The subject of onanism is inexhaustable." --Sigmund Freud
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Well,
from the standpoint of common sense I would say yes...
from the standoint of most western laws I would say, yes...
from the standpoint of the bible (especially old testament) I would say probably no,
as the woman is the property of her husband and has to obey him because, just as god is the head of Jesus and Jesus is the head of the man, the man is the head of the woman. So, well, obviously the woman isn´t allowed to say no
Tamsin (Lost Girl): "I am the Harbinger of Death. I arrive on winds of blessed air. Air that you no longer deserve."
Tamsin (Lost Girl): "He has fallen in battle and I must take him to the Einherjar in Valhalla"
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